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50 Most Important Indian Polity Questions for SSC CGL Exam Preparation

R
Virat
Updated: Jun 17, 2026
8 MIN READ
Master these 50 essential Indian Polity MCQs to elevate your SSC CGL preparation. This collection covers critical Articles, Constitutional Amendments, and Schedules, providing a targeted revision strategy to maximize your performance in both SSC CGL Tier 1 and Tier 2 exams.

Indian Polity is a high-yield and highly scoring section in the SSC CGL syllabus. Since questions regarding Articles, Schedules, Constitutional Amendments, Fundamental Rights, and Duties appear consistently across almost every exam shift, mastering these 4-5 core questions is essential for securing a top rank.

Polity Questions and Answers for SSC CGL Exam

To streamline your revision, we have curated 50 high-frequency MCQs that encapsulate fundamental constitutional concepts. Use this practice set to evaluate your current knowledge, identify specific areas for improvement, and sharpen your accuracy because, in the competitive SSC CGL exam, every single mark counts towards your final selection.

Q1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution mandates the Right to Education for children aged 6 to 14?
(A) Article 45
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 21A
(D) Article 19A
Answer: (C) Article 21A

Q2. The Right to Life and Personal Liberty is protected under which Article?
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 20
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 25
Answer: (C) Article 21

Q3. Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits the employment of children under 14 years of age as domestic servants?
(A) Article 21A
(B) Article 24
(C) Article 23
(D) Article 45
Answer: (B) Article 24

Q4. How does Article 1 of the Indian Constitution define India?
(A) Union of Territories
(B) Federal State with Unitary Bias
(C) Union of States
(D) Confederation of States
Answer: (C) Union of States

Q5. Which Article ensures “Equality before Law” for all citizens?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 19
(D) Article 21
Answer: (A) Article 14

Q6. The Right to Freedom is enshrined under which group of Articles?
(A) Article 14-18
(B) Article 19-22
(C) Article 23-24
(D) Article 25-28
Answer: (B) Article 19-22

Q7. According to the Supreme Court ruling, the Right to Privacy falls under which Article?
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 20
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 22
Answer: (C) Article 21

Q8. How many Schedules are contained in the Indian Constitution?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 11
Answer: (B) 12

Q9. Under which Part of the Constitution is the ‘Right against Exploitation’ categorized?
(A) Part II
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part IVA
Answer: (B) Part III

Q10. Which amendment added the terms ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ to the Preamble?
(A) 40th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 52nd Amendment
Answer: (B) 42nd Amendment, 1976

Q11. Before the 42nd Amendment, where was the term ‘secular’ explicitly mentioned?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 25
(D) Article 26
Answer: (C) Article 25

Q12. Which of these powers is NOT granted by Article 2?
(A) Admission of foreign territory
(B) Establishment of a new state
(C) Renaming an existing state
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C) Renaming an existing state

Q13. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, how is Indian citizenship acquired?
(A) Only by birth and descent
(B) By religion and region
(C) By birth, descent, registration, naturalisation, and incorporation of territory
(D) By race and caste
Answer: (C) By birth, descent, registration, naturalisation, and incorporation of territory

Q14. Which Article empowers Parliament to alter the boundaries or name of existing states?
(A) Article 2
(B) Article 4
(C) Article 5
(D) Article 3
Answer: (D) Article 3

Q15. How many Parts did the Indian Constitution have upon its commencement?
(A) 22
(B) 25
(C) 20
(D) 18
Answer: (A) 22

Q16. Which Part of the Constitution covers the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part V
(D) Part VI
Answer: (B) Part IV – {Art 36-51}

Q17. Emergency provisions are detailed in which Part of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Part XI
(B) Part XV
(C) Part XVIII
(D) Part XX
Answer: (C) Part XVIII – {Art 352-360}

Q18. Which Article provides protection against arrest in specific circumstances?
(A) Article 22
(B) Article 23
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 19
Answer: (A) Article 22

Q19. Which Article defines the term ‘State’ for the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
(A) Article 12
(B) Article 36
(C) Article 38
(D) Article 51
Answer: (B) Article 36

Q20. Since the Directive Principles are non-justiciable, it implies-
(A) They are legally enforceable
(B) They cannot be enforced by any court
(C) They are contained in the Preamble
(D) They override Fundamental Rights
Answer: (B) They cannot be enforced by any court

Q21. Which Article was added by the 42nd Amendment to provide free legal aid and equal justice?
(A) Article 39
(B) Article 39A
(C) Article 45
(D) Article 50
Answer: (B) Article 39A

Q22. Article 48A, incorporated via the 42nd Amendment, focuses on-
(A) Organization of village panchayats
(B) Promotion of international peace
(C) Protection and improvement of the environment
(D) Equal pay for equal work
Answer: (C) Protection and improvement of the environment

Q23. Which Article mandates the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code?
(A) Article 44
(B) Article 43
(C) Article 45
(D) Article 46
Answer: (A) Article 44

Q24. Which Article of the Indian Constitution lists Fundamental Duties?
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 51A
(C) Article 48A
(D) Article 50
Answer: (B) Article 51A

Q25. How many Fundamental Duties currently exist in the Indian Constitution?
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 9
Answer: (B) 11

Q26. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the Fundamental Duties?
(A) 44th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 86th Amendment
(D) 52nd Amendment
Answer: (B) 42nd Amendment

Q27. The 11th Fundamental Duty, added in 2002, relates to:
(A) Environment
(B) National Anthem
(C) Providing Education
(D) Education of children
Answer: (D) Education of children

Q28. Which committee recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties?
(A) Punchhi Committee
(B) Sarkaria Committee
(C) Swaran Singh Committee
(D) Rajamannar Committee
Answer: (C) Swaran Singh Committee

Q29. Under which part of the Constitution are Fundamental Duties listed?
(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part V
(D) Part IV-A
Answer: (D) Part IV-A

Q30. Who is designated as the Constitutional Head of the Indian Union?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Vice-president
(D) Chief Justice
Answer: (B) President

Q31. The Union Executive comprises:
(A) President and Prime Minister
(B) President, Vice-President and Prime Minister only
(C) President, Vice-President, Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
(D) President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers and Attorney General of India
Answer: (D) President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers and Attorney General of India

Q32. How is the President of India elected?
(A) Direct election by the people
(B) Rajya Sabha members only
(C) Lok Sabha Members only
(D) Elected members of Parliament and State Legislatures
Answer: (D) Elected members of Parliament and State Legislatures

Q33. Article 75 relates to:
(A) Election of President
(B) Appointment of Prime Minister
(C) Powers of the Supreme Court
(D) Impeachment of President
Answer: (B) Appointment of Prime Minister

Q34. Where does the real executive power in India lie?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Council of Ministers headed by the PM
(D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: (C) Council of Ministers headed by the PM

Q35. The Union Parliament is composed of:
(A) Lok Sabha only
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha only
(C) President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(D) President and Lok Sabha
Answer: (C) President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

Q36. Which Schedule pertains to the Anti-Defection Law?
(A) 7th
(B) 8th
(C) 10th
(D) 12th
Answer: (C) 10th

Q37. Which Schedule lists the languages recognized by the Constitution?
(A) 7th Schedule
(B) 8th Schedule
(C) 10th Schedule
(D) 6th Schedule
Answer: (B) 8th Schedule

Q38. Which Schedule covers the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram?
(A) 4th Schedule
(B) 6th Schedule
(C) 5th Schedule
(D) 11th Schedule
Answer: (B) 6th Schedule

Q39. The 12th Schedule addresses:
(A) Municipalities
(B) Union territories
(C) Tribes and Tribal Areas
(D) Languages
Answer: (A) Municipalities {74th Amendment Act, 1992}

Q40. What is the scope of the 5th Schedule?
(A) Protection of Civil Rights
(B) Scheduled Areas and Tribes (except NE)
(C) Emergency Provisions
(D) Languages
Answer: (B) Scheduled Areas and Tribes (except NE)

Q41. Article 352 relates to:
(A) President’s Rule
(B) Financial Emergency
(C) National Emergency
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C) National Emergency

Q42. Which Article allows for the imposition of President’s Rule in a state?
(A) Article 355
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 360
Answer: (B) Article 356

Q43. During a National Emergency, the Fundamental Rights under which Article are automatically suspended?
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 22
(D) Article 14
Answer: (A) Article 19

Q44. Within what timeframe must the Parliament approve a Proclamation of Emergency?
(A) 1 month
(B) 2 months
(C) 3 months
(D) 6 months
Answer: (A) 1 month

Q45. Which Amendment replaced “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion” in Article 352?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 52nd Amendment
(D) 62nd Amendment
Answer: (B) 44th Amendment

Q46. Under President’s Rule, the powers of the State Legislature are exercised by:
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) Governor
Answer: (C) Parliament

Q47. Which Article empowers a State Governor to grant pardons or reduce sentences?
(A) Article 161
(B) Article 72
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 239
Answer: (A) Article 161

Q48. Select the correctly matched pair:
(A) Article 370 – Panchayati Raj
(B) Article 44 – Uniform Civil Code
(C) Article 324 – Finance Commission
(D) Article 280 – Election Commission
Answer: (B) Article 44 – Uniform Civil Code

Q49. Which of the following is NOT a writ issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Prohibition
(D) Interlocutory
Answer: (D) Interlocutory {type of court order}

Q50. What is the mandatory retirement age for Supreme Court Judges?
(A) 60 years
(B) 62 years
(C) 65 years
(D) 70 years
Answer: (C) 65 years

 

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