RBI Grade B 2025: Top 80 Important GK Questions & Exam Preparation PDF

The RBI Grade B exam is widely considered the pinnacle of banking recruitment in India. With the Phase 1 exam scheduled for October 18th, 2025, the General Awareness (GA) section has emerged as the definitive game-changer for successful candidates. To help you excel, we have curated a high-yield collection of RBI Grade B 2025 Important GK questions, covering the latest government policies, economic indicators, RBI circulars, and significant national developments. Access our comprehensive PDF to practice these vital questions in detail.

RBI Grade B 2025 Important GK Questions

The General Awareness section is not only the highest-scoring component of the RBI Grade B Phase 1 exam, but it also serves as a foundational pillar for your Phase 2 preparation. Unlike Quantitative Aptitude or Reasoning, this section requires conceptual clarity and consistent current affairs tracking rather than complex formulas. Scoring well in GA significantly improves your overall aggregate score, providing a competitive edge. Before diving into our RBI Grade B 2025 Important GK questions, let's examine the essential weightage and paper structure.

RBI Grade B 2025 Important GK Questions and Answers

Boost your preparation with these 15 high-probability RBI Grade B 2025 Important GK questions, encompassing recent government schemes, economic policies, and global current affairs:

Q1. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) as of 2025?
A. Kazakhstan
B. Tajikistan
C. Uzbekistan
D. Belarus
E. Turkmenistan
Answer: E
Explanation: The current SCO member nations include China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Iran, and Belarus. Turkmenistan is not a member of the organization.

RBI Grade B Admit Card 2025 - Direct Download Link

Q2. As of August 2025, what is the total insurance claim disbursed to farmers under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)?
A. ₹35,864 crore
B. ₹78,000 crore
C. ₹1.83 lakh crore
D. ₹2.10 lakh crore
E. ₹2.29 lakh crore
Answer: C
Explanation: Since its inception in 2016, PMFBY has successfully disbursed ₹1.83 lakh crore to support farmers, processing over 78 crore individual applications.

Q3. In April 2025, India’s official coastline length was revised to which of the following figures?
A. 7,516.60 km
B. 10,000.00 km
C. 11,098.81 km
D. 3,537.21 km
E. 12,500.50 km
Answer: C
Explanation: The Survey of India and the National Hydrographic Organisation updated India's total coastline to 11,098.81 km, with Gujarat remaining the state with the longest coastline.

Q4. How many indicators and data points are included in the updated Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0?
A. 516 indicators and 794 data points
B. 227 indicators and 794 data points
C. 147 indicators and 227 data points
D. 147 indicators and 516 data points
E. 227 indicators and 147 data points
Answer: C
Explanation: PAI 2.0 was streamlined, reducing the number of indicators from 516 to 147 and data points from 794 to 227 to optimize monitoring and implementation.

Q5. Under the Veer Parivaar Sahayata 2025 scheme, legal aid will be extended to which of the following security forces?

1. Border Security Force (BSF)

2. Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)

3. Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)

4. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)
   A. Only 1 and 2
   B. Only 2 and 3
   C. Only 1, 2, and 3
   D. Only 1, 3, and 4
   E. All of the above

Answer: C
Explanation: This initiative provides comprehensive legal aid to BSF, CRPF, and ITBP personnel, assisting them with family, land, and various domestic legal disputes.

Q6. Which regulatory modification introduced by the IBBI 4th Amendment to CIRP Regulations is designed to improve transparency in CoC decision-making?
A. Interim financiers gain full voting rights in the CoC
B. Resolution Professionals can reject incomplete plans without informing the CoC
C. Resolution Professionals must present all resolution plans, including incomplete ones, to the CoC
D. Government nominees are granted absolute veto powers in the CoC
E. All CoC meetings must be conducted in the public domain
Answer: C
Explanation: Requiring the presentation of all resolution plans fosters an environment of fairness, accountability, and wider investor participation.

Q7. As per SEBI’s updated ESG Bond framework, what is the primary role of the Independent Third-Party Reviewer?
A. Determines the specific coupon rates for ESG bonds
B. Ensures the bond is officially listed on national stock exchanges
C. Verifies that the bond aligns with internationally recognized ESG standards prior to issuance
D. Audits the issuing company’s financial profit and loss statements
E. Provides an optional advisory service
Answer: C
Explanation: The third-party reviewer validates that the bond meets rigorous sustainability criteria, which serves to significantly increase investor trust and transparency.

Q8. In which year was the Parliamentary Estimates Committee originally constituted?
A. 1947
B. 1950
C. 1952
D. 1949
E. 1955
Answer: B
Explanation: The committee was constituted in 1950 to monitor budget estimates and celebrate its Platinum Jubilee in June 2025.

Q9. Following the inauguration of a new IIM in Assam in 2025, what is the current total number of IIMs in India?
A. 20
B. 23
C. 25
D. 22
E. 21
Answer: D
Explanation: The establishment of IIM Guwahati brought the total count to 22, cementing its status as an Institute of National Importance.

Q10. In July 2025, LIC entered into Forward Rate Agreements valued at USD 1 billion with which of the following global institutions?
A. Goldman Sachs and Citibank
B. JPMorgan Chase & Co. and Bank of America
C. Morgan Stanley and Wells Fargo
D. Deutsche Bank and HSBC
E. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: LIC finalized these agreements to hedge against anticipated interest rate volatility and ensure stabilized long-term returns.

Q11. Which African nation was officially validated by the WHO in July 2025 for the successful elimination of trachoma?
A. Nigeria
B. Senegal
C. Kenya
D. Ghana
E. Ethiopia
Answer: B
Explanation: Senegal became the 25th country globally and the 9th in the African region to achieve the milestone of eliminating trachoma as a public health issue.

Q12. Under the National Cooperative Policy 2025, how many model cooperative villages are mandated to be established per tehsil?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
E. Six
Answer: D
Explanation: The policy requires the development of five model cooperative villages in every tehsil to act as benchmarks for best practices and rural empowerment.

Q13. DPIIT recently signed an MoU with Hero MotoCorp to support early-stage startups. What is the official name of this programme?
A. Hero Startup Accelerator
B. Hero For Startups
C. MotoCorp Innovation Hub
D. Hero Innovation Challenge
E. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: The "Hero For Startups" initiative is designed to provide mentorship, resources, and scaling support to high-potential early-stage entrepreneurs.

Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the National SC-ST Hub (NSSH) Scheme:

1. 1. Launched in October 2016 by the MSME Ministry

2. 2. Implemented through the NSIC

3. 3. CCEA extended the scheme in 2021 with a ₹360 crore outlay for 2021-26

4. 4. Supports only SC/ST entrepreneurs operating in the agriculture sector

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
E. All 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: NSSH provides broad-based support to SC/ST entrepreneurs across all industrial and service sectors, not just agriculture.

Q15. Regarding the Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS-95), which of the following statements are correct?

1. 1. Minimum pension is fixed at ₹1,500 per month

2. 2. Funded primarily through an 8.33% employer contribution

3. 3. Central government contributes 1.16% of wages up to ₹21,000/month

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. 1 and 2
E. 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation: EPS-95 is funded by an 8.33% employer contribution. While the government provides additional support, the actual minimum pension is ₹1,000, not ₹1,500.

RBI Grade B 2025 Important GK Questions Download Link

Success in the RBI Grade B Phase 1 exam is heavily dependent on your performance in the General Awareness section. Candidates who prioritize consistent revision and engage with high-quality, relevant practice questions significantly increase their chances of clearing the cut-off. Download our exclusive set of 80 RBI Grade B 2025 Important GK questions along with comprehensive explanations below:

Download the PDF – Comprehensive RBI Grade B Important GK Questions

Importance of RBI Grade B 2025 GA section

• Highest-Scoring Section: GA carries 80 marks (~40% of Phase 1). Strong GK can boost your score even if Reasoning or Quant is tough.
• Time-Efficient: The GA section can be completed in the stipulated sectional time given. It does not put you into any time pressure situations, unlike Quants or Reasoning.
• Useful for Phase 2 & Interview: Same GK knowledge helps in ESI, FM papers, and RBI-related interview questions.
• Predictable Topics: Questions usually come from RBI reports, economic indices, government schemes, and international events; all of which should be covered in your RBI Grade B preparation strategy.

Preparation Tips for RBI Grade B 2025 GK Section

1. Read Daily Current Affairs – Follow reliable sources like PIB, The Hindu, and Result91 Current Affairs.
2. Focus on Key Areas – RBI circulars, Economic Surveys, Budget updates, Government Schemes, and Banking News.
3. Revise Monthly PDFs – Go through Result91 Monthly Capsules for the last 6–8 months.
4. Attempt Daily GK Quizzes – Strengthen your recall and accuracy through daily practice.
5. Make Short Notes – Prepare quick revision sheets of important schemes, committees, and indices.